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糙糙米 · 2022年05月26日

第0年的现金流为什么不用加上

NO.PZ2018103102000120

问题如下:

Matt is preparing to evaluate the value of Company M`s equity by using the two-stage FCFF model. The growth rates for the first three years are estimated at 5% and then it may grow at 2.5% per year into the indefinite future. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million and the company is in the 30% tax bracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. Determine whether the common stock is fairly valued, overvalued or undervalued?

选项:

A.

undervalued.

B.

overvalued.

C.

fairly valued.

解释:

A is correct.

考点:Valuation Models.

解析:先计算WACC = wd × rd × (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re)

= (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)

= 7.08%

PV3=FCFF3×(1+g)rg=2000×1.053×(1+2.5%)7.08%2.5%=51,815.09millionPV_3=\frac{FCFF_3\times\left(1+g\right)}{r-g}=\frac{2000\times1.05^3\times\left(1+2.5\%\right)}{7.08\%-2.5\%}=51,815.09million

PV=21001.0708+22051.07082+2315.25+51,815.091.07083=47,971.73millionPV=\frac{2100}{1.0708}+\frac{2205}{1.0708^2}+\frac{2315.25+51,815.09}{1.0708^3}=47,971.73million

V common stock = 47,971.73 – 15,000 – 5,000 = $27,971.73 million

大于市场价值20,000 million,所以common stock被低估。

老师,这题我做对了,但突然想到有一个问题:第0年的FCFF也就是2000为什么不用加总在价值中,之前惯性思维直接从第一年现金流开始折现,但原因没有想过,现在突然有点疑问。谢谢老师!

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2022年05月27日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,因为我们估计资产的价值的原理是:资产把资产所有未来产生的现金流折现到0时刻计算出来的值,就是资产0时刻的价值。而第0年的FCFF是已经发生的,过去的现金流,不属于未来,所以不可以在计算的时候考虑。

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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