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逢考必过过过过过过 · 2022年06月24日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018091701000077 [ CFA II ]

问题如下:

Smith has a bond portfolio which consists two zero-coupon bonds. Bond 1 has a duration of 3.5 year, and the market value is $47.5 million. Bond 2 has a duration of 12 year, the market value is $52.5 million. The range of portfolio asset weights must be within 45%-55%. It is expected that the yield curve will parallel shift 20bp upward. To reduce the interest rate risk, Smith should:

选项:

A.

Buy $7.5 million Bond 2 and invest $7.5 million in Bond 1

B.

Sell $7.5 million Bond 2 and invest $7.5 million in Bond 1

C.

Sell $2.5 million Bond 1 and invest $2.5 million in Bond 2

解释:

B is correct.

考点:fixed-income exposure measures。

解析 : Duration是衡量利率风险的指标 。 为了降低利率风险 , 也就是减小Duration , Smith应该卖掉Duration大的债券 , 购买Duration小的债券 。 具体的金额不超过资产比重在45%-55%之间的这个范围限制 。 所以Bond 2的卖出上限是52.5-45=7.5 million , 同时购买相同金额的Bond 1 。

这个7.5计算,我完全没明白…………45%不是一个权重吗?为什么直接减
2 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2022年06月27日

@逢考必过过过过过过

20bp这个数字没用,有用的是“... will parallel shift .... upward”。因为利率要上升,所以需要调低duration。

星星_品职助教 · 2022年06月25日

同学你好,

减掉的是45个million,而不是45%。

这是因为整个组合的market value是47.5+52.5=100million,所以45%的占比就是45 million。

逢考必过过过过过过 · 2022年06月27日

那20bp在这里起到什么作用,对本题条件判断是什么影响。

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