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Basel Zhang · 2023年08月10日

neutral benchmark over a rules-based approach是什么意思?

NO.PZ2022123002000016

问题如下:

Wilson Manufacturing (Wilson) is an Australian institutional client of Ethan Lee, who manages a variety of portfolios across asset classes. Wilson prefers a neutral benchmark over a rules-based approach, with its investment policy statement (IPS) requiring a currency hedge ratio between 97% and 103% to protect against currency risk. Lee has assessed various currency management strategies for Wilson’s US dollar-denominated fixed-income portfolio to optimally locate it along the currency risk spectrum. The portfolio is currently in its flat natural neutral position because of Lee’s lack of market conviction.

Identify the most likely approach for Lee to optimally locate Wilson’s portfolio on the currency risk spectrum, consistent with the IPS. Justify your response with two reasons supporting the approach.


选项:

解释:

Correct Answer:


Passive hedging is not likely because the IPS allows the 3% band around the neutral position. In addition, passive hedging is a rules-based approach, which is contrary to Wilson’s preference.

Active currency management is not likely because the 3% band around the neutral position is too limited for that approach. In many cases, the difference between discretionary hedging and active currency management is more of emphasis than degree. The primary duty of the discretionary hedger is to protect the portfolio from currency risk. Active currency management is supposed to take currency risks and manage them for profit. Leaving actual portfolio exposures near zero for extended periods is typically not a viable option.

Currency overlay is not likely because the 3% band is too small to indicate active currency management in a currency overlay program. In addition, currency overlay programs are often conducted by external, FX-specialized sub-advisers to a portfolio, whereas Lee is a generalist managing a variety of portfolios across asset classes. Finally, currency overlay allows for taking directional views on future currency movements, and a lack of market conviction is noted here.

neutral position相当于full hedged。那neutral benchmark为什么和Wilson的preference冲突了呢?和rule-based approach有什么区别?

2 个答案

pzqa31 · 2023年08月10日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


就是可以稍微偏离benchmark的意思。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

pzqa31 · 2023年08月10日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


这句话中“rules-based approach”指的是passive hedging的方法,passive hedging的方法是与benchmark保持一致。而neutral benchmark over rules-based approach,指的是相比于benchmark可以保持中性,即可以有稍微的偏离的意思。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

Basel Zhang · 2023年08月10日

"相比于benchmark可以保持中性,即可以有稍微的偏离的意思",这句话我都理解不了。什么叫做“相比于benchmark可以保持中性”?和benchmark相同?

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NO.PZ2022123002000016 问题如下 Wilson Manufacturing(Wilson) is Australiinstitutionclient of EthLee, who manages a varietyof portfolios across asset classes. Wilson prefers a neutrbenchmark over arules-baseapproach, with its investment polistatement (IPS) requiring acurrenhee ratio between 97% an103% to proteagainst currenrisk. Leehassessevarious currenmanagement strategies for Wilson’s USllar-nominatefixeincome portfolio to optimally locate it along thecurrenrisk spectrum. The portfolio is currently in its flnaturneutralposition because of Lee’s laof market conviction.Intify the most likelyapproafor Lee to optimally locate Wilson’s portfolio on the currenriskspectrum, consistent with the IPS. Justify your response with two reasonssupporting the approach. CorreAnswer:Passive heing isnot likely because the IPS allows the 3% banarounthe neutrposition. Inaition, passive heing is a rules-baseapproach, whiis contrary toWilson’s preference.Active currencymanagement is not likely because the 3% banarounthe neutrposition is toolimitefor thapproach. In many cases, the fferenbetween scretionaryheing anactive currenmanagement is more of emphasis thgree. Theprimary ty of the scretionary heer is to protethe portfolio fromcurrenrisk. Active currenmanagement is supposeto take currenrisksanmanage them for profit. Leaving actuportfolio exposures nezero forextenperio is typically not a viable option.Currenoverlayis not likely because the 3% banis too small to incate active currencymanagement in a currenoverlprogram. In aition, currenoverlayprograms are often concteexternal, FX-specializesub-aisers to aportfolio, whereLee is a generalist managing a variety of portfolios acrossasset classes. Finally, currenoverlallows for taking rectionviews onfuture currenmovements, ana laof market conviction is notehere. 如题是不是passive的hee ratio一定是0,然后当前lamarket conviction不代表之后有了不会调hee ratio?

2023-07-29 14:58 1 · 回答