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一只可爱的猪 · 2019年12月11日

问一道题:NO.PZ2015120604000013 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

为什么我们在计算Pv 时候,假设FV为0? 解释:

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2019年12月11日

同学你好,
以年金为例,年金有的其实只是一系列等额等间距的现金流,也就是PMT,在年金的0时点,和最后一期N时点,是没有除了PMT以外的现金流的。也就是说,PV和FV都是根据这些PMT求出来的,而不是本来就存在的现金流。如以下第一张图。

所以当求PV的时候,由于N时点没有(除PMT以外)的现金流,这个时候FV就是0,如以下第二张图。

当求FV时,由于0时点也没有现金流,所以这个时候PV=0。如以下第三张图。

但有一种情况FV是不为0的,就是固收里即将学到的债券,因为在N时点是有一笔面值(par value)要付的,所以除了PMT外还有一笔现金流,这个时候按计算器的时候,FV不是0,而是Par value 的值。如以下第四张图。
加油~



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