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努努奔 · 2019年12月25日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000019 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

为什么不用3.5%而用利率2%再转化ear?

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2019年12月25日

同学你好,

这道题实际上是有两拨现金流,其中3.5%是本金20,000的利率。而本金产生的利息拿出来再投资了,再投资利率是名义利率2%。

具体而言,20,000的本金投资后,每年会产生700的本金(20,000*3.5%)。如果是传统年金问题的话,这700也会按照3.5%进行再投资(也就是“利滚利”的复利思想),这种情况直接按计算器就行。但是在这道题目里,这700并不是按照3.5%进行再投资,而是按照2%的名义利率进行再投资的。而这个2%由于是名义利率,所以需要转化为EAR。而之前的3.5%就是实际的年利率,就也不需要再转化了。

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补充一点,这道题其实是一个符合现实的操作,因为实务中投资收益往往难以按照原投资利率进行再投资。举个例子,比如买了个2万起买的按年付息3.5%的4年期理财产品,每年末可以获得2万*3.5%=700的利息,但由于这700无法满足2万的起买金额,所以就无法再度购买理财产品并按照3.5%的利率投资了,可能只能买2%名义利率的货币市场基金。这个其实就是之后要学的再投资风险的概念(利息无法按照原利率进行再投资)。这也是学到固收时,YTM的缺陷之一,同时也是公司金融中IRR假设的缺陷之一。等学到对应知识点后可以进行关联。加油~



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NO.PZ2017092702000019问题如下A client invests €20,000 in a four-yecertificate of posit (C thannually pays interest of 3.5%. The annuinterest payments are automatically reinvestein a separate savings account a stateannuinterest rate of 2% compounmonthly. maturity, the value of the combineasset is closest to:A.€21,670.B.€22,890.C.€22,950. B is correct, the following cash flows show:The four annuinterest payments are baseon the Cs 3.5% annurate. The first payment grows 2.0% compounmonthly for three years (where FV is future value): FVN = €700(1 +0.02/12 )3×12 FVN = 743.25 The seconpayment grows 2.0% compounmonthly for two years: FVN = €700(1 +0.02/12 )2×12 FVN = 728.54 The thirpayment grows 2.0% compounmonthly for one year: FVN = €700(1 +0.02/12 )1×12 FVN=714.13The fourth payment is paithe enof Ye4. Its future value is €700. The sum of all future value payments is follows:根据EAR的公式(1+2%/12)^12=1+EAR,得到EAR=2.0184%。然后1. 首先按照年金的方式来计算利息再投资的终值N=4,I/Y=2.0184,PV=0,PMT=700,CPT FV=-2885.9208;其中700是20,000每年按照3.5%产生的利息,I/Y是转化的EAR,因为利息(PMT)的频率也是一年一付的。2. 然后把期初的这20,000再加回去,得到22,885.92。(和B有写出入是因为四舍五入的问题,但不影响选出答案) 老师,2/12这个不是把月计的利率转成年计吗,和E的区别在哪?谢谢

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